The Ultimate ISC SSCP Dumps PDF Review
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The SSCP certification is well-regarded in the IT industry and is often required for positions in system security. It is a great way to validate one's knowledge and skills in the field and demonstrate a commitment to professional development. System Security Certified Practitioner (SSCP) certification is also a stepping stone to more advanced certifications, such as the Certified Information Systems Security Professional (CISSP) certification, which is offered by ISC as well. Overall, the SSCP certification is a valuable asset for IT professionals looking to advance their careers in system security.
NEW QUESTION # 19
In the statement below, fill in the blank:
Law enforcement agencies must get a warrant to search and seize an individual's property, as stated in the
_____ Amendment.
- A. Third.
- B. Fourth.
- C. First.
- D. Second.
Answer: B
Explanation:
Section: Risk, Response and Recovery
Explanation/Reference:
The Fourth Amendment does not apply to a seizure or an arrest by private citizens.
Search and seizure activities can get tricky depending on what is being searched for and where.
For example, American citizens are protected by the Fourth Amendment against unlawful search and seizure, so law enforcement agencies must have probable cause and request a search warrant from a judge or court before conducting such a search.
The actual search can only take place in the areas outlined by the warrant. The Fourth Amendment does not apply to actions by private citizens unless they are acting as police agents. So, for example, if Kristy's boss warned all employees that the management could remove files from their computers at any time, and her boss was not a police officer or acting as a police agent, she could not successfully claim that her Fourth Amendment rights were violated. Kristy's boss may have violated some specific privacy laws, but he did not violate Kristy's Fourth Amendment rights.
In some circumstances, a law enforcement agent may seize evidence that is not included in the warrant, such as if the suspect tries to destroy the evidence. In other words, if there is an impending possibility that evidence might be destroyed, law enforcement may quickly seize the evidence to prevent its destruction. This is referred to as exigent circumstances, and a judge will later decide whether the seizure was proper and legal before allowing the evidence to be admitted. For example, if a police officer had a search warrant that allowed him to search a suspect's living room but no other rooms, and then he saw the suspect dumping cocaine down the toilet, the police officer could seize the cocaine even though it was in a room not covered under his search warrant. After evidence is gathered, the chain of custody needs to be enacted and enforced to make sure the evidence's integrity is not compromised.
All other choices were only detractors.
Reference(s) used for this question:
Harris, Shon (2012-10-25). CISSP All-in-One Exam Guide, 6th Edition (p. 1057). McGraw-Hill. Kindle Edition.
NEW QUESTION # 20
Which of the following phases of a system development life-cycle is most concerned with establishing a good security policy as the foundation for design?
- A. Development/acquisition
- B. Maintenance
- C. Implementation
- D. Initiation
Answer: D
Explanation:
Explanation/Reference:
A security policy is an important document to develop while designing an information system. The security policy begins with the organization's basic commitment to information security formulated as a general policy statement.
The policy is then applied to all aspects of the system design or security solution. The policy identifies security goals (e.g., confidentiality, integrity, availability, accountability, and assurance) the system should support, and these goals guide the procedures, standards and controls used in the IT security architecture design.
The policy also should require definition of critical assets, the perceived threat, and security-related roles and responsibilities.
Source: STONEBURNER, Gary & al, National Institute of Standards and Technology (NIST), NIST Special Publication 800-27, Engineering Principles for Information Technology Security (A Baseline for Achieving Security), June 2001 (page 6).
NEW QUESTION # 21
Which of the following is unlike the other three choices presented?
- A. Smurf
- B. El Gamal
- C. Buffer Overflow
- D. Teardrop
Answer: B
NEW QUESTION # 22
This type of supporting evidence is used to help prove an idea or a point, however It cannot stand on its own, it is used as a supplementary tool to help prove a primary piece of evidence. What is the name of this type of evidence?
- A. Corroborative evidence
- B. Circumstantial evidence
- C. Opinion evidence
- D. Secondary evidence
Answer: A
Explanation:
Section: Risk, Response and Recovery
Explanation/Reference:
This type of supporting evidence is used to help prove an idea or a point, however It cannot stand on its own, it is used as a supplementary tool to help prove a primary piece of evidence. Corrobative evidence takes many forms.
In a rape case for example, this could consist of torn clothing, soiled bed sheets, 911 emergency calls tapes, and prompt complaint witnesses.
There are many types of evidence that exist. Below you have explanations of some of the most common types:
Physical Evidence
Physical evidence is any evidence introduced in a trial in the form of a physical object, intended to prove a fact in issue based on its demonstrable physical characteristics. Physical evidence can conceivably include all or part of any object.
In a murder trial for example (or a civil trial for assault), the physical evidence might include DNA left by the attacker on the victim's body, the body itself, the weapon used, pieces of carpet spattered with blood, or casts of footprints or tire prints found at the scene of the crime.
Real Evidence
Real evidence is a type of physical evidence and consists of objects that were involved in a case or actually played a part in the incident or transaction in question.
Examples include the written contract, the defective part or defective product, the murder weapon, the gloves used by an alleged murderer. Trace evidence, such as fingerprints and firearm residue, is a species of real evidence. Real evidence is usually reported upon by an expert witness with appropriate qualifications to give an opinion. This normally means a forensic scientist or one qualified in forensic engineering.
Admission of real evidence requires authentication, a showing of relevance, and a showing that the object is in
"the same or substantially the same condition" now as it was on the relevant date. An object of real evidence is authenticated through the senses of witnesses or by circumstantial evidence called chain of custody.
Documentary
Documentary evidence is any evidence introduced at a trial in the form of documents. Although this term is most widely understood to mean writings on paper (such as an invoice, a contract or a will), the term actually include any media by which information can be preserved. Photographs, tape recordings, films, and printed emails are all forms of documentary evidence.
Documentary versus physical evidence
A piece of evidence is not documentary evidence if it is presented for some purpose other than the examination of the contents of the document. For example, if a blood-spattered letter is introduced solely to show that the defendant stabbed the author of the letter from behind as it was being written, then the evidence is physical evidence, not documentary evidence. However, a film of the murder taking place would be documentary evidence (just as a written description of the event from an eyewitness). If the content of that same letter is then introduced to show the motive for the murder, then the evidence would be both physical and documentary.
Documentary Evidence Authentication
Documentary evidence is subject to specific forms of authentication, usually through the testimony of an eyewitness to the execution of the document, or to the testimony of a witness able to identify the handwriting of the purported author. Documentary evidence is also subject to the best evidence rule, which requires that the original document be produced unless there is a good reason not to do so.
The role of the expert witness
Where physical evidence is of a complexity that makes it difficult for the average person to understand its significance, an expert witness may be called to explain to the jury the proper interpretation of the evidence at hand.
Digital Evidence or Electronic Evidence
Digital evidence or electronic evidence is any probative information stored or transmitted in digital form that a party to a court case may use at trial.
The use of digital evidence has increased in the past few decades as courts have allowed the use of e-mails, digital photographs, ATM transaction logs, word processing documents, instant message histories, files saved from accounting programs, spreadsheets, internet browser histories, databases, the contents of computer memory, computer backups, computer printouts, Global Positioning System tracks, logs from a hotel's electronic door locks, and digital video or audio files.
While many courts in the United States have applied the Federal Rules of Evidence to digital evidence in the same way as more traditional documents, courts have noted very important differences. As compared to the more traditional evidence, courts have noted that digital evidence tends to be more voluminous, more difficult to destroy, easily modified, easily duplicated, potentially more expressive, and more readily available. As such, some courts have sometimes treated digital evidence differently for purposes of authentication, hearsay, the best evidence rule, and privilege. In December 2006, strict new rules were enacted within the Federal Rules of Civil Procedure requiring the preservation and disclosure of electronically stored evidence.
Demonstrative Evidence
Demonstrative evidence is evidence in the form of a representation of an object. This is, as opposed to, real evidence, testimony, or other forms of evidence used at trial.
Examples of demonstrative evidence include photos, x-rays, videotapes, movies, sound recordings, diagrams, forensic animation, maps, drawings, graphs, animation, simulations, and models. It is useful for assisting a finder of fact (fact-finder) in establishing context among the facts presented in a case. To be admissible, a demonstrative exhibit must "fairly and accurately" represent the real object at the relevant time.
Chain of custody
Chain of custody refers to the chronological documentation, and/or paper trail, showing the seizure, custody, control, transfer, analysis, and disposition of evidence, physical or electronic. Because evidence can be used in court to convict persons of crimes, it must be handled in a scrupulously careful manner to avoid later allegations of tampering or misconduct which can compromise the case of the prosecution toward acquittal or to overturning a guilty verdict upon appeal.
The idea behind recoding the chain of custody is to establish that the alleged evidence is fact related to the alleged crime - rather than, for example, having been planted fraudulently to make someone appear guilty.
Establishing the chain of custody is especially important when the evidence consists of fungible goods. In practice, this most often applies to illegal drugs which have been seized by law enforcement personnel. In such cases, the defendant at times disclaims any knowledge of possession of the controlled substance in question.
Accordingly, the chain of custody documentation and testimony is presented by the prosecution to establish that the substance in evidence was in fact in the possession of the defendant.
An identifiable person must always have the physical custody of a piece of evidence. In practice, this means that a police officer or detective will take charge of a piece of evidence, document its collection, and hand it over to an evidence clerk for storage in a secure place. These transactions, and every succeeding transaction between the collection of the evidence and its appearance in court, should be completely documented chronologically in order to withstand legal challenges to the authenticity of the evidence. Documentation should include the conditions under which the evidence is gathered, the identity of all evidence handlers, duration of evidence custody, security conditions while handling or storing the evidence, and the manner in which evidence is transferred to subsequent custodians each time such a transfer occurs (along with the signatures of persons involved at each step).
Example
An example of "Chain of Custody" would be the recovery of a bloody knife at a murder scene:
Officer Andrew collects the knife and places it into a container, then gives it to forensics technician Bill.
Forensics technician Bill takes the knife to the lab and collects fingerprints and other evidence from the knife.
Bill then gives the knife and all evidence gathered from the knife to evidence clerk Charlene. Charlene then stores the evidence until it is needed, documenting everyone who has accessed the original evidence (the knife, and original copies of the lifted fingerprints).
The Chain of Custody requires that from the moment the evidence is collected, every transfer of evidence from person to person be documented and that it be provable that nobody else could have accessed that evidence.
It is best to keep the number of transfers as low as possible.
In the courtroom, if the defendant questions the Chain of Custody of the evidence it can be proven that the knife in the evidence room is the same knife found at the crime scene. However, if there are discrepancies and it cannot be proven who had the knife at a particular point in time, then the Chain of Custody is broken and the defendant can ask to have the resulting evidence declared inadmissible.
"Chain of custody" is also used in most chemical sampling situations to maintain the integrity of the sample by providing documentation of the control, transfer, and analysis of samples. Chain of custody is especially important in environmental work where sampling can identify the existence of contamination and can be used to identify the responsible party.
REFERENCES:
Hernandez CISSP, Steven (2012-12-21). Official (ISC)2 Guide to the CISSP CBK, Third Edition ((ISC)2 Press) (Kindle Locations 23173-23185). Auerbach Publications. Kindle Edition.
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Documentary_evidence
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Physical_evidence
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Digital_evidence
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Demonstrative_evidence
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Real_evidence
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Chain_of_custody
NEW QUESTION # 23
What is the primary goal of setting up a honeypot?
- A. To know when certain types of attacks are in progress and to learn about attack techniques so the network can be fortified.
- B. To lure hackers into attacking unused systems
- C. To entrap and track down possible hackers
- D. To set up a sacrificial lamb on the network
Answer: A
Explanation:
Explanation/Reference:
The primary purpose of a honeypot is to study the attack methods of an attacker for the purposes of understanding their methods and improving defenses.
"To lure hackers into attacking unused systems" is incorrect. Honeypots can serve as decoys but their primary purpose is to study the behaviors of attackers.
"To entrap and track down possible hackers" is incorrect. There are a host of legal issues around enticement vs entrapment but a good general rule is that entrapment is generally prohibited and evidence gathered in a scenario that could be considered as "entrapping" an attacker would not be admissible in a court of law.
"To set up a sacrificial lamb on the network" is incorrect. While a honeypot is a sort of sacrificial lamb and may attract attacks that might have been directed against production systems, its real purpose is to study the methods of attackers with the goals of better understanding and improving network defenses.
References
AIO3, p. 213
NEW QUESTION # 24
Which cable technology refers to the CAT3 and CAT5 categories?
- A. Fiber Optic cables
- B. Twisted Pair cables
- C. Coaxial cables
- D. Axial cables
Answer: B
Explanation:
Twisted Pair cables currently have two categories in common usage. CAT3
and CAT5.
Source: KRUTZ, Ronald L. & VINES, Russel D., The CISSP Prep Guide: Mastering the
Ten Domains of Computer Security, 2001, John Wiley & Sons, Page 72.
NEW QUESTION # 25
When you update records in multiple locations or you make a copy of the whole database at a remote location as a way to achieve the proper level of fault-tolerance and redundancy, it is knows as?
- A. Backup
- B. Shadowing
- C. Archiving
- D. Data mirroring
Answer: B
Explanation:
Updating records in multiple locations or copying an entire database to a remote location as a means to ensure the appropriate levels of fault-tolerance and redundancy is known as Database shadowing. Shadowing is the technique in which updates are shadowed in multiple locations. It is like copying the entire database on to a remote location.
Shadow files are an exact live copy of the original active database, allowing you to maintain live duplicates of your production database, which can be brought into production in the event of a hardware failure. They are used for security reasons: should the original database be damaged or incapacitated by hardware problems, the shadow can immediately take over as the primary database. It is therefore important that shadow files do not run on the same server or at least on the same drive as the primary database files.
The following are incorrect answers:
Data mirroring In data storage, disk mirroring is the replication of logical disk volumes onto separate physical hard disks in real time to ensure continuous availability. It is most commonly used in RAID 1. A mirrored volume is a complete logical representation of separate volume copies.
Backups In computing the phrase backup means to copy files to a second medium (a disk or tape) as a precaution in case the first medium fails. One of the cardinal rules in using computers is back up your files regularly. Backups are useful in recovering information or a system in the event of a disaster, else you may be very sorry :-( Archiving is the storage of data that is not in continual use for historical purposes.
It is the process of copying files to a long-term storage medium for backup.
NEW QUESTION # 26
Which of the following is true of two-factor authentication?
- A. It does not use single sign-on technology.
- B. It requires two measurements of hand geometry.
- C. It uses the RSA public-key signature based on integers with large prime factors.
- D. It relies on two independent proofs of identity.
Answer: D
Explanation:
It relies on two independent proofs of identity. Two-factor
authentication refers to using two independent proofs of identity, such as something the user has (e.g. a token card) and something the user knows (a password). Two-factor authentication may be used with single sign-on.
The following answers are incorrect: It requires two measurements of hand geometry. Measuring hand geometry twice does not yield two independent proofs.
It uses the RSA public-key signature based on integers with large prime factors. RSA encryption uses integers with exactly two prime factors, but the term "two-factor authentication" is not used in that context.
It does not use single sign-on technology. This is a detractor.
The following reference(s) were/was used to create this question: Shon Harris AIO v.3 p.129 ISC2 OIG, 2007 p. 126
NEW QUESTION # 27
Which of the following firewall rules found on a firewall installed between an organization's internal network and the Internet would present the greatest danger to the internal network?
- A. Permit all syslog traffic to log-server.abc.org.
- B. Permit all inbound tcp connections.
- C. Permit all inbound ssh traffic.
- D. Permit all traffic between local hosts.
Answer: B
Explanation:
Section: Network and Telecommunications
Explanation/Reference:
Any opening of an internal network to the Internet is susceptible of creating a new vulnerability.
Of the given rules, the one that permits all inbound tcp connections is the less likely to be used since it amounts to almost having no firewall at all, tcp being widely used on the Internet.
Reference(s) used for this question:
ALLEN, Julia H., The CERT Guide to System and Network Security Practices, Addison-Wesley, 2001, Appendix B, Practice-Level Policy Considerations (page 409).
NEW QUESTION # 28
What does the Clark-Wilson security model focus on?
- A. Confidentiality
- B. Accountability
- C. Availability
- D. Integrity
Answer: D
Explanation:
Explanation/Reference:
The Clark-Wilson model addresses integrity. It incorporates mechanisms to enforce internal and external consistency, a separation of duty, and a mandatory integrity policy.
Source: KRUTZ, Ronald L. & VINES, Russel D., The CISSP Prep Guide: Mastering the Ten Domains of Computer Security, John Wiley & Sons, 2001, Chapter 5: Security Architectures and Models (page 205).
NEW QUESTION # 29
A Wide Area Network (WAN) is basically everything outside of:
- A. a Local Area Network (LAN).
- B. the Internet.
- C. a Metropolitan Area Network (MAN).
- D. a Campus Area Network (CAN).
Answer: A
Explanation:
A WAN is basically everything outside of a LAN.
Source: KRUTZ, Ronald L. & VINES, Russel D., The CISSP Prep Guide: Mastering the
Ten Domains of Computer Security, 2001, John Wiley & Sons, Page 99.
NEW QUESTION # 30
In stateful inspection firewalls, packets are:
- A. Inspected at only one layer of the Open System Interconnection (OSI) model
- B. Encapsulated at all Open Systems Interconnect (OSI) layers.
- C. Decapsulated at all Open Systems Interconnect (OSI) layers.
- D. Inspected at all Open System Interconnection (OSI) layers
Answer: D
Explanation:
Section: Network and Telecommunications
Explanation/Reference:
Many times when a connection is opened, the firewall will inspect all layers of the packet. While this inspection is scaled back for subsequent packets to improve performance, this is the best of the four answers.
When packet filtering is used, a packet arrives at the firewall, and it runs through its ACLs to determine whether this packet should be allowed or denied. If the packet is allowed, it is passed on to the destination host, or to another network device, and the packet filtering device forgets about the packet. This is different from stateful inspection, which remembers and keeps track of what packets went where until each particular connection is closed. A stateful firewall is like a nosy neighbor who gets into people's business and conversations. She keeps track of the suspicious cars that come into the neighborhood, who is out of town for the week, and the postman who stays a little too long at the neighbor lady's house. This can be annoying until your house is burglarized. Then you and the police will want to talk to the nosy neighbor, because she knows everything going on in the neighborhood and would be the one most likely to know something unusual happened.
"Inspected at only one Open Systems Interconnetion (OSI) layer" is incorrect. To perform stateful packet inspection, the firewall must consider at least the network and transport layers.
"Decapsulated at all Open Systems Interconnection (OSI) layers" is incorrect. The headers are not stripped ("decapsulated" if there is such a word) and are passed through in their entirety IF the packet is passed.
"Encapsulated at all Open Systems Interconnect (OSI) layers" is incorrect. Encapsulation refers to the adding of a layer's header/trailer to the information received from the above level. This is done when the packet is assembled not at the firewall.
Reference(s) used for this question:
CBK, p. 466
Harris, Shon (2012-10-25). CISSP All-in-One Exam Guide, 6th Edition (pp. 632-633). McGraw-Hill. Kindle Edition.
NEW QUESTION # 31
Which of the following protocols that provide integrity and authentication for IPSec, can also provide non-repudiation in IPSec?
- A. Encapsulating Security Payload (ESP)
- B. Secure Shell (SSH-2)
- C. Authentication Header (AH)
- D. Secure Sockets Layer (SSL)
Answer: C
Explanation:
As per the RFC in reference, the Authentication Header (AH) protocol is a mechanism for providing strong integrity and authentication for IP datagrams. It might also provide non- repudiation, depending on which cryptographic algorithm is used and how keying is performed.
For example, use of an asymmetric digital signature algorithm, such as RSA, could provide non- repudiation.
from a cryptography point of view, so we will cover it from a VPN point of view here. IPSec is a suite of protocols that was developed to specifically protect IP traffic. IPv4 does not have any integrated security, so IPSec was developed to bolt onto IP and secure the data the protocol transmits. Where PPTP and L2TP work at the data link layer, IPSec works at the network layer of the OSI model. The main protocols that make up the IPSec suite and their basic functionality are as follows: A. Authentication Header (AH) provides data integrity, data origin authentication, and protection from replay attacks. B. Encapsulating Security Payload (ESP) provides confidentiality, data-origin authentication, and data integrity. C. Internet Security Association and Key Management Protocol (ISAKMP) provides a framework for security association creation and key exchange. D. Internet Key Exchange (IKE) provides authenticated keying material for use with ISAKMP.
The following are incorrect answers:
ESP is a mechanism for providing integrity and confidentiality to IP datagrams. It may also provide authentication, depending on which lgorithm and algorithm mode are used. Non- repudiation and protection from traffic analysis are not provided by ESP (RFC 1827). SSL is a secure protocol used for transmitting private information over the Internet. It works by using a public key to encrypt data that is transferred of the SSL connection. OIG 2007, page 976 SSH-2 is a secure, efficient, and portable version of SSH (Secure Shell) which is a secure replacement for telnet.
NEW QUESTION # 32
What is NOT true about a one-way hashing function?
- A. The results of a one-way hash is a message digest
- B. A hash cannot be reverse to get the message used to create the hash
- C. It provides integrity of the message
- D. It provides authentication of the message
Answer: D
Explanation:
Explanation/Reference:
A one way hashing function can only be use for the integrity of a message and not for authentication or confidentiality. Because the hash creates just a fingerprint of the message which cannot be reversed and it is also very difficult to create a second message with the same hash.
A hash by itself does not provide Authentication. It only provides a weak form or integrity. It would be possible for an attacker to perform a Man-In-The-Middle attack where both the hash and the digest could be changed without the receiver knowing it.
A hash combined with your session key will produce a Message Authentication Code (MAC) which will provide you with both authentication of the source and integrity. It is sometimes referred to as a Keyed Hash.
A hash encrypted with the sender private key produce a Digital Signature which provide authentication, but not the hash by itself.
Hashing functions by themselves such as MD5, SHA1, SHA2, SHA-3 does not provide authentication.
Source: HARRIS, Shon, All-In-One CISSP Certification Exam Guide, McGraw-Hill/Osborne, 2001, Page
548
NEW QUESTION # 33
When backing up an applications system's data, which of the following is a key question to be answered first?
- A. When to make backups
- B. What records to backup
- C. How to store backups
- D. Where to keep backups
Answer: B
Explanation:
Section: Security Operation Adimnistration
Explanation/Reference:
It is critical that a determination be made of WHAT data is important and should be retained and protected.
Without determining the data to be backed up, the potential for error increases. A record or file could be vital and yet not included in a backup routine. Alternatively, temporary or insignificant files could be included in a backup routine unnecessarily.
The following answers were incorrect:
When to make backups Although it is important to consider schedules for backups, this is done after the decisions are made of what should be included in the backup routine.
Where to keep backups The location of storing backup copies of data (Such as tapes, on-line backups, etc) should be made after determining what should be included in the backup routine and the method to store the backup.
How to store backups The backup methodology should be considered after determining what data should be included in the backup routine.
NEW QUESTION # 34
How long are IPv4 addresses?
- A. 16 bits long.
- B. 32 bits long.
- C. 64 bits long.
- D. 128 bits long.
Answer: B
Explanation:
IPv4 addresses are currently 32 bits long. IPv6 addresses are 128 bits long. Source: KRUTZ, Ronald L. & VINES, Russel D., The CISSP Prep Guide: Mastering the Ten Domains of Computer Security, 2001, John Wiley & Sons, Page 87.
NEW QUESTION # 35
Which of the following security mode of operation does NOT require all users to have the clearance for all information processed on the system?
- A. Compartmented security mode
- B. Multilevel security mode
- C. System-high security mode
- D. Dedicated security mode
Answer: B
Explanation:
Explanation/Reference:
The multilevel security mode permits two or more classification levels of information to be processed at the same time when all the users do not have the clearance of formal approval to access all the information being processed by the system.
In dedicated security mode, all users have the clearance or authorization and need-to-know to all data processed within the system.
In system-high security mode, all users have a security clearance or authorization to access the information but not necessarily a need-to-know for all the information processed on the system (only some of the data).
In compartmented security mode, all users have the clearance to access all the information processed by the system, but might not have the need-to-know and formal access approval.
Generally, Security modes refer to information systems security modes of operations used in mandatory access control (MAC) systems. Often, these systems contain information at various levels of security classification.
The mode of operation is determined by:
The type of users who will be directly or indirectly accessing the system.
The type of data, including classification levels, compartments, and categories, that are processed on the system.
The type of levels of users, their need to know, and formal access approvals that the users will have.
Dedicated security mode
In this mode of operation, all users must have:
Signed NDA for ALL information on the system.
Proper clearance for ALL information on the system.
Formal access approval for ALL information on the system.
A valid need to know for ALL information on the system.
All users can access ALL data.
System high security mode
In this mode of operation, all users must have:
Signed NDA for ALL information on the system.
Proper clearance for ALL information on the system.
Formal access approval for ALL information on the system.
A valid need to know for SOME information on the system.
All users can access SOME data, based on their need to know.
Compartmented security mode
In this mode of operation, all users must have:
Signed NDA for ALL information on the system.
Proper clearance for ALL information on the system.
Formal access approval for SOME information they will access on the system.
A valid need to know for SOME information on the system.
All users can access SOME data, based on their need to know and formal access approval.
Multilevel security mode
In this mode of operation, all users must have:
Signed NDA for ALL information on the system.
Proper clearance for SOME information on the system.
Formal access approval for SOME information on the system.
A valid need to know for SOME information on the system.
All users can access SOME data, based on their need to know, clearance and formal access approval.
REFERENCES:
WALLHOFF, John, CBK#6 Security Architecture and Models (CISSP Study Guide), April 2002 (page 6).
and
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Security_Modes
NEW QUESTION # 36
The IDEA algorithm (used in PGP) is _______ bits long.
- A. 0
- B. 1
- C. 2
- D. 3
Answer: D
NEW QUESTION # 37
......
Here is the information about the validity of the ISC SSCP Certification:
The certification is valid for three years, after which it expires, and you have to renew it by taking the SSCP exam again. The exam is divided into two parts, each with its own maximum score of 250 points.
The first part of the exam focuses on security risk management and is worth up to 125 points. This section covers how security policies are developed, along with procedures used to keep them updated. It also includes how to perform risk assessments plus policy compliance issues. Other topics include organizational security management; security policies; laws, regulations, and guidelines; and incident response scenarios. Most of the candidates think that it is extremely difficult. But it depends upon how well you are prepared for the exam. For the preparation of the SSCP exam, there are many resources including SSCP Dumps. If you prepare for your SSCP exam with smart work, you can not only pass the SSCP exam but can also get good marks.
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